NBDE Quiz # 44
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NBDE Quiz # 44
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1. Question
A 30-year-old male presents for routine ex-amination, when a lesion is noted in the left mandible. PMH: none, Meds: none, All: NKDA. What is the most likely diagnosis?
CorrectThe correct answer is A. This radiograph de¬picts a radiolucent lesion in the left posterior mandible. The only pathology consistent with this radiograph is an OKC; the others, a COC and Pindborg, have radio-opaque find¬ings within the radiolucent lesion, and in SCC one would see bony destruction.
IncorrectThe correct answer is A. This radiograph de¬picts a radiolucent lesion in the left posterior mandible. The only pathology consistent with this radiograph is an OKC; the others, a COC and Pindborg, have radio-opaque find¬ings within the radiolucent lesion, and in SCC one would see bony destruction.